48 YO Male, Family history of ovarian cancer
I had a colonoscopy two weeks ago. I got the results today and am a bit confused. Gastro doc messaged "precancerous lessons but not cancerous" and instructed that I just come back in six months for a flexible sigmoidoscopy. Out of four poylps, the one I am concerned about was 15mm and described as "high grade dysplasia". Write-up said:
Tubular ademona with focal high-grade dysplasia in sigmoid colon. High grade features seen in stroma of the polyp head. Associated desmoplastic reaction, which can be associated with submucosal invasion. "Definitive invasion is not demonstrated by the examined sections, however, invasion cannot be excluded."
The microscopic description is:
The mucosa shows an increased number of glands with glandular crowding and much depletion. The glands are lined by enlarged, hyperchromatic cells showing pseudostratification. These features are consistent with the usual low-grade dysplasia of tubular adenoma. Focally there are features of high-grade dysplasia. Glands with high-grade features are seen in stroma of the polyp head. There appears to be an associated desmoplastic reaction, which can be associated with submucosal invasion; however, definitive invasion is not demonstrated by the examined sections.
It looks to me like the polyp is mostly low-grade dysplasia but with a section of high grade? Does anyone know what a desmoplastic reaction would be in this context? A submucosal invasion sounds like cancer getting into the surrounding tissue, no? Does the six-month follow-up sound appropriate or should I be more aggressive? I see all these posts about resections and surgery and fear that my doctor is being too cavalier. It doesn't help that I was contacting the office and doctor for results, was told that they weren't in, and now see that they were "reported" four days before I received them.
Any help so appreciated as the holidays plus this = extreme stress.