I'm the caretaker to my wife, 37 dx T4aN2M1 on 7/19. We've now been through three surgeries in the past 16 months (details in signature). After the liver resection (second surgery), the cancer appeared very quickly in the left ovary. This lead to a recent modified radical hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo oophorectomoy where they confirmed a 3cm solid tumor in the left ovary, 2 positive nodules on the uterus, and microscopic disease in the uterus and the right ovary. The spleen showed several suspicious "freckle like spots." The surgeon showed the picture to us, but was not sure what to make of it. The spots on the spleen did not look nodular or bumpy which is the reason for suspicion. They did not remove the spleen due to high risk of complications. The surgeon proclaimed that she "got it all" at the follow up visit.
We're now working our way through various appointments with the ONCs to determin the path forward. The GYN/ONC surgeon who did the hysterectomy and our second opinion at MSK are saying that this is not peritoneal carcinomatosis while our primary oncologist is proclaiming that the cancer is confirmed on the spleen and that my wife has PC. We're at a bit of a crossroad here and trying to figure out how to move forward.
We've heard from a few of the medical professionals that spread from the cecum/right colon to the ovary happens frequently in younger women with CRC. Has anyone else been through something similar? We haven't been able to find much useful information on the topic and we're looking to plan for what might be next. Do we start consulting with HIPEC and/or EPIC surgeons?
Our current treatment protocol is metronomic xeloda, IV vitamin C (new for us), CIM, PSK, celecoxib, and some repurposed meds and various other naturopathic additions. MSK is suggesting a Xeloda cycle, while our primary is suggesting FOLFOX or FOLFIRI. It's hard to accept FOLFOX/FOLFIRI treatment plan when we are technically NED and we're trying to avoid a chemoresistance scenario. Are there good reads/literature out there about efficacy of the oxi or iri protocols vs xeloda in a postadjuvant scenario for met spread? How have other users progressed from here?