Hi all,
I am a 55 yo man. Did a screening colonoscopy in July that found 3 large ascending colon polyps; 1 transverse; 1 descending; 1 sigmoid.
Pathology showed that the descending polyp was an adenocarcinoma and showed signs of spreading to the submucosa.
Genetic testing show none of the markers. My CEA has never been above 1.
Surgery was recommended. My GP said if you have to get cancer, this is as good a way to get it as there is.
Im given the decision to make of whether to do a subtotal (part of the sigmoid will be left in place) or takeout the descending only. Surgeon says in terms of disease, they are equally weighted in terms of outcomes (I.e. no greater mortality risk either way).
The subtotal will allow for follow-up checks to be done with a flexible scope, no sedation and the only prep needed an enema the day of. Frequency will be at 1-year anniversary then every 1-2 years assuming no recurrence.
Hemi will of course require those checks to be via colonoscopy, with all that entails. I had tolerated my July prep reasonably well - just wasn’t much fun obviously.
I was leaning towards the less radical approach but the other day he said in my shoes he would do the subtotal. So now I’m confused again and struggling to know what to do.
Any advice out there?